Torah in verse Deuteronomy 22:28 requires a man who has relations with a woman who is a virgin and is discovered to marry the woman and pay 50 shekels of silver to the father. He can not divorce in all his days.
An arab on the internet has spoken in my views arrogantly and discussed that a jewish man who rapes a woman who is not married and a virgin is subject to making a subject to this law and marrying the woman.
What is the rabbinic interpretation of this type of situation?
The halachah must be understood in its historical context.
The intention of the halachah is to ensure that the woman in question, who is ‘stained’ by having been raped, will be looked after in her future life by marriage to a man. It is for the benefit of the woman, and not for her detriment. In a society where women were traditionally very weak, this was a great “innovation” in women’s rights.
This is why the application of the halachah depends on the free will of the woman in question. If the woman does not want to be wed, we certainly don’t force her into it. Only if she wants the “protection” of marriage do we force the man to wed her.
Naturally, it is unheard of for this halachah to be practiced today.