As well al derech what I asked before…
A husband is chayiv to buy for his wife begadim. However do they “become” hers or are the begadim still considered to be the property of the husband? What is the re’ah for this?
Clothes that a husband buys for his wife become his wife’s.
This is stated by the Rishonim to Bava Kama (102b) concerning somebody who is makdish his property (see Ramban and Hagahos Ashri; this will apply the more so for somebody who has already given the clothing to his wife), and in Choshen Mishpat (97:25) concerning a ba’al chov who wishes to claim the debt from a wife’s clothes. It also emerges from Even Ha-Ezer (77) concerning the laws of a moredes.