This is a theoretical question. Someone lent a friend a sum of money for 5 years, interest-free. After one year the person grabbed his money back as he needed it to cover expenses. Is the lender liable for the cost of the friend taking out a bank loan?


In this theoretical case the person who grabbed the money back before the time of the loan was up stole the money from the person who borrowed it. However this that now the person who lent the money has to take pay bank expenses because of what he did, he will not be liable for that because he only caused this loss and it is not worse than a grama.


Tags: damages loans

Share The Knowledge

Not what you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged Damages damages loans or ask your own question.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *