Question:
Hi,
I did a Pidyon Haben for my son almost one and a half years ago.
But, I am worried that there was a slight issue. please help clarify it:
When I wanted to buy the silver coins that I would use for the Pidyon. The seller, being a Cohen, received the coins previously at a Pidyon Haben in which he was used as the Cohen. Therefore he felt bad getting personal gain by selling the coins to me. (Having gotten the coins through a mitzvah).
Instead he said that I should give the cost of the coins to a certain charity.
Indeed I transferred the amount to the charity organisation, However I am in doubt whether the money was received by the charity organisation as it takes a day or two for the money to actually go through.
In the interim I used those coins for the Pidyon. is that fine?
I have being learning Mesechet Kiddushin daf 7a – and it seems from the Machaneh Efraim (Hilchos Ribbis siman 11) that there are 2 ways in the Rishonim to view what happened :
(1) the money that I gave to the charity was as if I really gave it to the Cohen first and there after acted as his shaliach (based off Tos B’M 57b) , in which case I am worried that it is only considered that I BOUGHT the coins from him once the money was received by the charity, because only then would I have completed my shelichut? Or is the Shelichut after he has already received the money from me?
(2) The fact that I gave the money that to the charity in turn gave the seller some “personal good feeling” that I listened to him (based on Ritva Kiddushin 7a) , in which case I am concerned that he only gets that “feeling” once the charity received the money. And as a result was only Makneh to me the coins after the Pidyon Haben(when the money actually was received).
However both these points are debatable and still unclear to me.
Furthermore Maybe what actually transpired was a “matanah on condition” , the condition being that I give the Money to the Charity. In which case it would depend if he said “al menat” or “from now” , in which case once the money went through the coins would have become mine retroactively.(maybe?)
But I am concerned that he didn’t stipulate that 100% clearly.
Although, maybe I am just stressing for no reason- because the person(cohen) who gave me the coins was not so makpid that the Charity should actually receive the money, rather he was happy to be Makneh it to me as long as the transfer was done from my bank account as he requested from me- the rest of it is up to the bank and they will practically transfer the money whenever they do it. So maybe he had full “intention” to give me the coins before the Pidyon even if he knew the money will only be received by the charity after the Pidyon, in which case I would be fine.
Also as I said this was a year and a half ago (almost) and it could be the money actually did go though before, I am just stressing about it now.
Thank you so much..
Answer:
Answer from Horav Y. Fleishman shlit’a
Your concern to do mitzvos properly is admirable. However, we discussed it in kollel and the mutual feeling is that the kohein agreed to sell it to you and the money to tsedoko is the payment. This is not similar to the Gemoro in Kiddushin and the Machane Efraim. There the money is making the kinyan – here it is not it is just a payment and one can sell-giving the buyer credit.
May you have much nachas from your son.
Yosef Fleischman
