Halachos based on kabbalah

Question:

Why are we sometimes told that a certain halacha or minhag is "based on kabbalah and therefore there is more room to be lenient if necessary"? Why would it being based on kabbalah affect its status?

Answer:

Hello,

You are asking an important question. Why should we be able to be more lenient just because it is kabbalah? The Mishan Berura brings, rules of how we are to relate to areas of kabbalah and their relationship to halacha.  Among the rules that he brings, is that when something is not mentioned in the gemora and poskim, but it is mentioned in kabbalah, how are we to relate to it. On one hand, since it isn’t mentioned in the gemora or halacha, which would seem that we don’t have to be concerned about them, but on the other hand, the idea is mentioned in kabbalah? He says that in such instances we should indeed do what it says in kabbalah, however, it is not something important enough that we can force the person to do it, as it isn’t mentioned in the gemora. Therefore, when something is kabala based and not halachically based, when it is difficult for the person to do it, there is room to be lenient.

This is the rationale behind the above idea. It is important to note, that this is the general rule, however when a person is confronted with a question of such a nature, a Rov should be consulted.

Best wishes

Sources:

משנה ברורה סימן כה ס"ק מב "כתב הכנה"ג בכללי הפוסקים כל דבר שבעלי הקבלה והזוהר חולקין עם הגמרא והפוסקים הלך אחר הגמרא והפוסקים מיהו אם בעלי קבלה מחמירין יש להחמיר ג"כ ואם לא הוזכר בגמרא ובפוסקים אף על פי שנזכר בקבלה אין אנו יכולין לכוף לנהוג כך ודין שאין מוזכר בהיפוך בש"ס ופוסקים יש לילך אחר דברי קבלה וגם במקום שיש פלוגתא בין הפוסקים דברי קבלה יכריע".