Is the amount for matanos levyonim supposed to be more than Shalach Manos and seuda? Does that mean both combined?
Good question. When reading the Mishna Berurah one might assume that it means to spend more money value on matanos l’evyonim than what he spends on the other mitzvos, then your question is very valid..
The poskim however understand it differently. The source of the Mishnah Berura is the Rambam Hilchos Megillah 2-17, brought in M:B 694-3. The sefer Orah V’simcha on the Rambam understands that the Rambam is saying that although it says that one should be “marbeh” in giving mishloach matanos l’evyonim. (This is also the understanding of other poskim in the Rambam.) Therefore the Rambam is not talking about giving more money for matanos l’evyonim in regard to the amount of money of being spent. According to this understanding, the question will not apply.