In the article about lashon hara, it is stated that even the person about whom lashon hara is said, is punished. What is the basis for this–especially, if that subject of the lashon hara is an innocent party who does not even know he is being spoken about?
My apologies but I m not familiar with this article, and I don’t know why the person spoken about would get a punishment, unless he got involved with the lashon hora. I know that the person spoken about does get hurt because of the lashon hora, because it usually negatively affects him, but not that he is actually punished for the sin of the lashon hora. If it is true, it is possible that here is some kabbalah reason that I am not aware of.